By this logic, you don't need to prove it for every multiple of 4, only 1. Have I completely confused myself? Can someone provide a counter-example? Also, could you provide an explanation of why my logic doesn't work?
Skyrim Multiple Rings Mod
Now the content of the original question is that the number $4 \in \mathbbZ$ is prime2, showing that 'prime2-ness' is not a good way of generalizing 'primeness' (primality) of integers to arbitrary rings. Very nice, I never thought of that before. However, for now that means that prime2 is out as a candidate definition of "prime" and the race is between prime1 and prime3. (I ignore prime1' for the moment as it is identical to prime1). 2ff7e9595c
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